I don't understand the motivation to distinguish based on their income source. Surely you aren't suggesting people don't have the right of association because they are public servants? How would you classify private companies that are 100% government owned? What about defense contractors who exclusively take government money? What of the companies that exclusively serve those?Embar Angylwrath wrote:I could give a rats ass about workers organizing in the PRIVATE sector. But not the public sector, for the very fact that all wages and benefits are paid for by the taxpayer.
I don't think that just because a person works in the public sector is any justification for saying they don't have the right to band together with other workers and bargain together for their wages and benefits. Why would you possibly think the government has the right to tell ANY worker who they can and can't associate with when bargaining for their compensation?
As for public service benefits compared to private sector ones, what does the degree of benefits matter as to whether people have the right to band together? If that were true then you'd have to extend the logic to private companies who delivered excellent benefits for their workers as well wouldn't you?
Sorry, but I see the right to join (or not join) a union as a fundamental worker's right. That choice should not be curtailed and nor should the power of whatever union those workers freely associate with be limited. Similarly, the right of an employer and employee to negotiate contracts freely shouldn't be impeded by parties not invited to the discussion and if the employee decides to bring a union along with him then it's up to the employer to consider the offer presented and act accordingly.
Dd